General Finance Rules (GFR) & Advances: MCQs for IPO Exam & Gr B Exam is today’s topic. Indeed, General Finance Rules (GFR) is an important topic in the Gr B Syllabus and IPO syllabus as well. Further Advances to Govt servants like Personal Computer advance/TA advances is another important topic as many advances have been done away in the 7th pay commission.
What are General Finance Rules?
The General Financial Rules (GFRs) are a set of rules that deal with matters that involve public finances. They lay down the general rules applicable to Ministries / Departments, and detailed instructions relating to the procurement of goods are issued by the procuring departments broadly in conformity with the general rules.
There are several revisions in General Finance Rules like General Finance Rules 2005; the General Financial Rules 2017; General Finance Rules 2019. They were first issued in 1947 then revised in 1963, 2005, 2017, 2019 bringing together all the existing orders.
This topic of General Finance Rules needs to be read extensively as they are useful when you actually become a Gr B officer in the future. You need to adopt the General Financial Rules purchase procedure/procurement procedure when you become a Gr B Officer for all the procurements made for the Division under your control. So, you need to keep these important General Financial Rules in mind while making procurement.
MCQ on General Financial Rules 2017 will make you understand the broad concept of General Financial Rules.
General Finance Rules Quiz
Try this General Finance Rules 2017 Quiz right now:
MCQ on General Finance Rules 2017
1. What are the standards of financial propriety which should be observed
by an officer with regard to expenditure and payment of money from public funds?
(a) The expenditure should not be prima facie more than the occasion demands
(b) Every officer should exercise the same vigilance in respect of expenditure incurred from public money as a person of ordinary prudence would exercise in respect of expenditure of his own money
(c) No authority should exercise its powers of sanctioning expenditure to pass an order which will be directly or indirectly to its own advantage
(d) All the above
2. What is the monetary limit of petty losses that need not be reported to the next higher authority?
(a) ₹20,000 (b) ₹15,000 (c) ₹10,000 (d) ₹5,000
3. What is the monetary limit in case of theft, fraud, etc., above which the case is to be reported to the Police for investigation?
(a) ₹50,000 (b) ₹75,000 (c) ₹1,00,000 (d) ₹2,00,000
4. State the monetary limit up to which any loss of immovable property by fire, flood, etc., can be reported by a subordinate authority to the next higher authority up to:
(a) ₹5,00,000 (b) ₹1,00,000
(c) ₹ 50,000 (d) ₹2, 50,000
5. From which Financial Year is the Railway Budget included with the General Budget?
(a) 2018-2019 (b) 2016-2017
(c) 2015-2016 (d) 2017-2018
6. After finalization of the estimates for Budgetary allocations by the Department of Expenditure, whose consultation is necessary to prepare an Outcome Budget statement?
(a) Prime Minister of India (b)NITI Aayog
(c) President (d) Vice-President of India
7. What is the full form of ‘PFMS’?
(a) Permanent Finance Management System
(b) Public Financial Management System
(c) Public Finance Monetary System
(d) Prime Minister’s Finance Measurement System
General Financial Rules 2017 MCQ
8. What is the periodicity for re-audit in respect of Central and State Governments for the past transactions involving errors in classification?
(a) 3 years (b) 5 years (c) 2 years (d) 1 year
9. What is the crucial date for closure of Inter-Government adjustments under GFR?
(a) 1st April (b) 15th April
(c) 1st March (d) 30th April
10. What is the limit up to which a Ministry / Department may directly execute repair works?
(a) 30 lakhs (b) 40 lakhs
(c) 50 lakhs (d) 60 lakh
11. Arrange the following events in the sequence in which the procedure for execution works should be carried out.
(i) Preparation of detailed design and estimates
(ii) Limited tenders will be called for works costing less than ₹5 lakhs
(iii) Execution of Contract Agreement or Award of work
(iv) Issue of Administrative approval and Expenditure sanction of estimates
(v) Final payment for work
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(a) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv), (v) (b) (i), (iv), (ii), (iii), (v)
(c) (i), (iii), (v), (iv), (ii) (d) (i), (v), (ii), (iii), (iv)
12. For projects up to ₹100 crores, powers are vested with the Administrative Ministry / Department to accept a variation in the approved estimate within:
(a) 10% (b) 20% (c) 30% (d) 40%
13. Which item will not come under the purview of the definition of Goods?
(a) Furniture, Fixtures, and raw materials
(b) Books, Publication, Periodicals
(c) Intangible products like Software, Patents
(d) Vehicles, aircraft, ships
14. Which fundamental principle is essential for an authority delegated with financial powers for procuring goods in the public interest?
(a) Responsibility and accountability
(b) Fair and equitable treatment of suppliers
(c) Promotion of competition in public procurement
(d) All the above
The General Financial Rules MCQ
15. While making a public procurement, the description of the subject matter should not contain which of the following?
(a) Technical specifications
(b) A particular trademark, trade name, or brand
(c) Quantity of goods to be procured
(d) A complete schedule of the procurement cycle
16. Who will certify and register suppliers on Government e-Marketplace (GeM)?
(a) Secretary, Finance
(b) Finance Minister
(c) Head of the Department of a particular establishment
(d) Central Purchase Organization
17. What is the validity period of registered suppliers in Government e-Marketplace?
(a) 1 to 5 years (b) 3 to 5 years
(c) 1 to 3 years (d) 2 to 5 years
18. What is the maximum period of debarment of a bidder under Section 151 (i) of GFR?
(a) 3 years (b) 2 years
(c) 5 years (d) 4 years
19. What is the financial limit for the purchase of goods without quotation or bids?
(a) ₹15,000 (b) ₹30,000 (c) ₹25,000 (d) ₹20,000
20. What is the limit up to which a duly constituted financial committee can purchase goods on each occasion?
(a) ₹2,75,000 (b) ₹2,50,000 (c) ₹3,00,000 (d) ₹5,00,000
21. How many methods are there in the process of obtaining bids?
(a) 3 (b) 4 (c) 5 (d) 6
22. What are the standard methods adopted for obtaining bids during the purchase of goods?
(a) Advertised tender enquiry (b) Limited tender enquiry
(c) Single tender enquiry (d) All the above
23. What is the estimated value of the goods to be procured for which invitations to tenders can be made by advertisement?
(a) ₹15 lakhs and above (b) ₹25 lakhs and above
(c) ₹30 lakhs and above (d) ₹10 lakhs and above
General Financial Rules
24. A limited tender enquiry may be adopted when the estimated value of goods to be procured is up to:
(a) Rupees Ten lakhs (b) Rupees Fifteen lakhs
(c) Rupees Twenty-five lakhs (d) Rupees Twenty Lakhs
25. The number of supplier firms in limited tender enquiry should be more than:
(a) 2 (b) 5 (c) 3 (d) 4
26. Which system is being followed for the purchase of high-value plant, machinery, etc. of a complex and technical nature?
(a) Advertised tender system (b) Two bid system
(c) Single tender system (d) Limited tender system
27. Under what circumstances is a single tender enquiry system adopted?
(a) When required goods are manufactured by a particular firm
(b) In case of emergency when the required goods are necessarily to be purchased from a particular source
(c) For standardization of machinery or spare parts to be compatible with the existing sets of equipment resulting in purchase only from a selected firm
(d) All the above
28. What is the percentage of bid security required to be furnished by bidders in the case of Limited or advertised tender enquiry?
(a) 2 to 5 percent (b) 3 to 6 percent
(c) 4 to 7 percent (d) 1 to 3 percent
29. When will bid securities be refunded to the unsuccessful bidders?
(a) On or before the 10th day after the award of the contract
(b) On or before the 40th day after the award of the contract
(c) On or before the 15th day after the award of the contract
(d) On or before the 30th day after the award of the contract
General Financial Rules 2017
30. What should be the period of validity of bid security?
(a) 30 days beyond the final bid validity period
(b) 45 days beyond the final bid validity period
(c) 60 days beyond the final bid validity period
(d) 40 days beyond the final bid validity period
31. In what form will bid security be accepted?
(a) Bank guarantee
(b) Fixed Deposit receipts
(c) Demand Draft
(d) All the above
32. What percentage on the amount of the value of the contract as specified in the bid documents that is required to be furnished as performance security:
(a) Two to three percent (b) Four to five percent
(c) Six to seven percent (d) Five to ten percent
33. What should be the validity period of performance security beyond the date of completion of all contractual obligations?
(a)30 days (b) 45 days
(c) 50 days (d) 60 days
34. What is the maximum percentage of advance payments that are made to private firms?
(a) 20% of the contract value (b) 50% of the contract value
(c) 30% of the contract value (d) 15% of the contract value
35. What is the limit of advance payment made to the State Government, or Central Government agency or a PSU for supply contracts?
(a) 25% of the contract value (b) 20% of the contract value
(c) 10% of the contract value (d) 40% of the contract value
36. Which Rule in GFR speaks about transparency, competition, fairness, and elimination of arbitrariness in the procurement process?
(a) Rule 174 (b) Rule 173
(c) Rule 175 (1) (d) Rule 175 (2)
General Financial Rules 2019
37. Should a bidder request / enquire about the reasons for rejection or non-issuance of a tender to a prospective bidder. Is it mandatory to disclose the reasons?
(a) Yes
(b) No
(c) Optional
(d) Discretion of the procuring authority
38. A list of potential consultants is to be prepared if the estimated cost of the consulting service is up to:
(a) ₹15 lakhs (b) ₹25 lakhs
(c) ₹20 lakhs (d) ₹10 lakhs
39. Which of the following services come under the purview of consulting services?
(a) Policy consultancy services
(b) Management consultancy services
(c) Advisory and project-related consultancy services
(d) All the above
40. While short-listing the potential list of consultants what should be the minimum number of consultants?
(a)4 (b) 5 (c)2 (d) 3
41. What are the contents to be incorporated in the Terms of Reference [TOR]?
(a)Precise statement of objectives
(b) Outline of the tasks to be carried out
(c) Schedule for completion of tasks
(d) All the above
42. Identify the document that does not form part of a Request for Proposal (RFP)—
(a) A letter of Invitation
(b) Terms of Reference
(c) Bid evaluation criteria
(d) Proposed list of potential consultants
43. Which bid is opened first by a Ministry in two bid system?
(a) Financial bid
(b) Technical bid
(c) Both should be opened simultaneously
(d) Anyone bid
44. Who will evaluate the technical bids?
(a) Financial Adviser
(b) Technical Team
(c) Consultancy Evaluation Committee (CEC)
(d) Head of Office
45. In a QCBS, what is the highest weightage allowed for technical parameters?
(a) 50 per cent (b) 60 per cent
(c) 70 per cent (d) 80 per cent
General Financial Rules (continued)
46. What is the estimated value of the non-consulting service for which invitation of bids is done through advertisement in CPPP or GeM?
(a) Above ₹15 lakhs (b) Above ₹20 lakhs
(c) Above ₹5 lakhs (d) Above ₹10 lakhs
47. Which method is followed for inviting bids if the estimated value of non-consulting service is less than Rupees ten lakhs?
(a) Advertised tender enquiry (b) Limited tender enquiry
(c) Single tender enquiry (d) Two bid system
48. Fixed assets should be verified at least once in—
(a)3 years (b) 1 year (c)4 years (d) 5 years
49. Physical verification of all the consumable goods and materials should be undertaken at least once in:
(a) A year (b) 5 years
(c)2 years (d) 6 years
50. The cost that does not add value to a material being stocked is:
(a) Inventory carrying cost (b) Transportation cost
(c) Surplus cost (d) Actual cost
General Financial Rules
51. In case of libraries having not more than twenty thousand volumes, complete physical verification of books should be done once in:
(a) a year (b) 5 years
(c) 2 years (d) 3years
52. What is the period of physical verification of library books in case of libraries having more than twenty thousand volumes and up to fifty thousand volumes?
(a) Once in 5 years (b) Once in 3 years
(c) Once in 4 years (d) Once in 6 years
53. Which of the following methods is used for disposal of surplus or obsolete or unserviceable goods of assessed residual value above ₹2 lakhs?
(a) By public auction (b) By single tender system
(c) By limited tender system (d) By a reputed dealer
54. What is the time-limit for the execution of a contract document after the issue of letter of acceptance?
(a) 14 days (b) 18 days (c) 21 days (d) 30 days
55. The value between which the Works Contracts or contracts for purchases, where tender documents include the General Condition of Contract (GCC), Special Condition of Contract (SCC) and scope of the work, the letter of acceptance will result in a binding contract is:
(a) ₹2 lakhs to 15 lakhs (b) ₹1 lakh to 10 lakhs
(c) ₹4 lakhs to 8 lakhs (d) ₹5 lakhs to 20 lakhs
56. Under which ministry’s order is a grant-in-aid regulated for the provision of amenities or of recreational or welfare facilities to the staff of offices of the Government?
(a) Ministry of Finance
(b) Ministry of Sports and Centre
(c) Ministry of Home Affairs
(d) Ministry of Personnel and Training
57. What is the maximum one-time grant that can be sanctioned for setting up of a recreation club?
(a) ₹25,000 (b) ₹40,000 (c) ₹60,000 (d) ₹50,000
58. What is the rate of fee on the guarantee for external borrowings?
(a) 3% (b) 1.20% (c) 3.50% (d) 2.00%
59. What is the maximum limit of Government guarantee to be considered for the project loan?
(a) 80% of the project loan (b) 75% of the project loan
(c) 60% of the project loan (d) 50% of the project loan
60. A report of transfer of a Gazetted Government servant is made in—
(a) GFR 15 (b) GFR 16 (c) GFR 17 (d) GFR 18
Advances to Central Government Servants
61. What is the due date for submission of T.A. claim on completion of the journey?
(a)Within 30 days (b) Within 1 year
(c) Within 15 days (d) within 60 days
62. What is the time-limit for submission of LTC claim after completion of the return journey when LTC advance is drawn?
(a) Within 20 days (b) Within 15 days
(c) Within 30 days (d) Within 45 days
63. What is the time-limit for submission of LTC claim when the advance is not drawn?
(a)Within 6 months (b) Within 3 months
(c) Within 1 month (d) within 60 days
64. When shall Over Time Allowance (OTA) claims to stand forfeited, if not submitted within?
(a) 90 days of the due date
(b) If not submitted within 60 days of the due date
(c) If not submitted within 45 days of the due date
(d) If not submitted within 30 days of the due date
65. An arrear claim of a Government servant shall be settled by the DDO if preferred within:
(a)Two years of its becoming due
(b)One year of its becoming due
(c) Three years of its becoming due
(d) Four years of its becoming due
66. Who can allow the arrear claim of a Government servant kept in abeyance for a period exceeding two years?
(a) Head of the Department (b) Appointing Authority
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) Neither (a) nor (b)
67. Which rule of GFR deals with the time-barred claim of Government servants?
(a) Rule 299 (b) Rule 301 (1)
(c) Rule 296 (d)Rule 298
68. When will a sanction of Provident Fund Advance/withdrawal lapse?
(a) On the expiry of 6 months
(b) On the expiry of 3 months
(c) On the expiry of 4 months
(d) On the expiry of 5 months
69. The recovery of Postal Life Insurance Premia will be registered in Form:
(a) GFR 2 (b) GFR 18 (c) GFR 19 (d) GFR 20
70. Who is exempted from furnishing a security deposit while handling cash?
(a) Drivers of the Government vehicles
(b) Librarian and library staff
(c) Government servants who are entrusted with the custody of office furniture, stationery, if the Head of Office is satisfied with the safeguards against loss through pilferage
(d) All the above
71. Who will value the buildings and superstructures on land at the time of transfer from one department to another?
(a) Head of the Department of the property
(b) Central Public Works Department
(c) Financial Adviser of the Department
(d) Legal Department
72. Who is competent to sanction permanent advance or imprest for meeting day-to-day contingent and emergent expenditure?
(a) Chief Accounts officer of the Department
(b) Controlling officer of the Department
(c) Head of the Department
(d) DDO
73. The procedures for grant of permanent advance or imprest to a Government servant is available in:
(a) CAM (b) DFPR (c) GFR (d) R&P
74. What is the maximum amount of advance that can be sanctioned by a Ministry/Department to a Government Pleader in connection with lawsuits to which Government is a party?
(a) ₹30,000 (b) ₹25,000 (c) ₹10,000 (d) ₹15,000
75. What is the period of retention of Service Books of officials entitled to retirement/terminal benefits?
(a) 5 years after issue of final pension/ gratuity
(b) 4 years after issue of final pension/ gratuity
(c) 3 years after issue of final pension/ gratuity
(d) 2 years after issue of final pension/ gratuity
76. What is the period of retention of Pay Bill Registers?
(a) 35 years (b) 30 years
(c) 40 years (d) 32 years
General Finance Rules 2019
77. Which of the following sentences is correct in terms of bidding procedures?
(a) Any new condition can be brought in for evaluation of bids
(b) Bidders can modify/alter their bids after the expiry of the deadline for receipt of bids
(c) Negotiation with bidders can be done to achieve the lowest bid even after opening the bid
(d) Contract should ordinarily be awarded to the lowest evaluated bidder who is qualified to perform satisfactorily.
78. When is the rejection of all bids justified?
(a) When effective competition is lacking
(b) When bids/proposals are responsive to the requirements of the procurement division
(c) When the technical bids meet the minimum qualifying score
(d) When all bids meet the criteria for evaluation of bids
79. Arrange the following procedures to be followed by a Department in the sequence of their happening to ensure correct execution of work.
(i) Preparation of detailed design and estimates
(ii) Open tenders to be called for
(iii) Execution of Contract Agreement
(iv) Final payment for work done
(a) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv) (b) (i), (iii), (iv), (ii)
(c) (i), (iv), (iii), (ii) (d) (iv), (iii), (ii), (i)
80. Details of specifications, prices and other salient features of different rate contracted items will be updated on the website by:
(a) Central Purchase Organization
(b) Suppliers
(c) Procuring Ministries / Departments
(d) Legal Department
81. What is the cost charged to download tender documents?
(a) 10% of cost estimate (b) 1% of the cost estimate
(c) No cost (d) Value of Bank guarantee
82. Match the following accounts with their respective forms.
1. Fixed Assets (i) GFR 23
2. Consumables (ii) GFR 18
3. Library Books (iii) GFR 22
4. Assets of historical value (iv) GFR 24
(a) 1-(iii) (b) 1-(i) (c) 1-(ii) (d) 1-(iv)
2-(i) 2-(ii) 2-(iii) 2-(ii)
3-(ii) 3-(iii) 3-(i) 3-(iii)
4-(iv) 4-(iv) 4-(iv) 4-(i)
83. Write the full form of CPPP—
(a) Central Purchase Power Protocol
(b) Central Purchase Procedure and Protocol
(c) Central Public Procurement Process
(d) Central Public Procurement Portal
84. e-Procurement, according to GFR means—
(a) Procurement of computer-related goods
(b)Use of information and communication technology in the procurement process
(c) Payment for procurement being made Online
(d) Procurement only through foreign sources
85. In a two-bid system, what are the two bids?
(i) Technical bid (ii) Dynamic bid (iii) Financial bid (iv) Online bid
(a) (i) and (iii) (b) (i) and (ii)
(c) (ii) and (iii) (d) (ii) and (iv)
86. In a two-bid system, how should the bids be evaluated?
(a) Both the bids should be opened simultaneously and evaluated
(b) The technical bid should be opened in the first instance and evaluated. The financial bid of the acceptable technical offer should be opened at the second stage
(c) The financial bid should be evaluated first and then the corresponding technical bid of the acceptable lowest bid should be opened
(d) Both the bids to be ranked together and the bid with the highest score to be selected
General Financial Rules objective type questions
87. What is performance security?
(a) To ensure due to performance of a contract, an amount of 5 to 10 percent of the contract value is deposited with the Government and this is called performance Security
(b) A performance security is one which is given by an Insurance Company for the security of goods
(c) A performance security is given by the Government to a contractor for any loss that he may incur in the contract
(d) A performance security is given by a contractor to inform that his bid is the lowest
88. What are the conditions to be satisfied when only one bid is submitted?
(a) The procurement was properly advertised and sufficient time was given for the submission of bids
(b) The qualification criteria were not unduly restrictive
(c) Prices are reasonable in comparison to market values
(d) All the above
89. When limited tender results in only one effective offer, it shall be treated as—
(a) Advertised Tender (b) Electronic Reverse Auction
(c) Single Tender Contract (d) Two-stage bidding
90. What does QCBS stand for?
(a) Quality and Cost Based Selection (b) Quantity Conscious Bid Selection
(c) Quality Contract Bid Selection (d) None of the above
Advances to Central Govt Servant
91. In case of default, what is the penal interest chargeable for advances regulated under Rules 39 to 84 of Compendium of Rules on Advances?
(a) 2% over the interest rate on Provident Fund balances
(b) 2 ½ % over the interest rate on Provident Fund balances
(c) 3% over the interest rate on Provident Fund balances
(d) 5% over the interest rate on Provident Fund balances
92. Under what circumstances is the interest not chargeable on the outstanding balance of interest-bearing advance sanctioned to a Government servant?
(a) On superannuation
(b) On termination from Government service
(c) On resignation from Government service
(d) Beyond the date of death of the Government servant
93. How is the amount of advance, except miscellaneous advances, rounded-off after the same is determined?
(a) Nearest multiple of ₹50
(b) Nearest multiple of ₹100
(c) Nearest multiple of ₹500
(d) No rounding-off
Personal Computer Advance
94. Which of the following category of Government servants are eligible for grant of Computer Advance?
(a) Employees drawing pay from Pay Level 10 to 18
(b) Employees drawing pay from Pay Level 6 to 18
(c) Employees drawing pay from Pay Level 4 to 18
(d) All Government employees
95. How many times is Computer Advance admissible to a Government servant in the entire service?
(a) Once (b) Twice
(c) Thrice (d) 5 times
96. What is the minimum period for grant of second or subsequent Computer Advance?
(a) 2 years (b) 3 years
(c) 4 years (d) 5 years
97. State the quantum of Personal Computer Advance admissible to a Government servant.
(a) ₹50,000
(b) ₹1,00,000
(c) Actual price of Personal Computer
(d) ₹50,000 or actual price of Personal Computer, whichever is lower
98. What is the maximum number of monthly installments prescribed for recovery of Computer Advance?
(a) 100 (b) 120
(c) 150 (d) 200
Interest-free Advances-Travelling Advance
99. Under what circumstance is an advance of Travelling Allowance on transfer not admissible to a Government servant?
(a) If he proceeds on transfer to Foreign Service
(b) If he proceeds on transfer while on leave
(c) If he proceeds on mutual transfer
(d) If he proceeds on transfer on administrative grounds
100. Head of office may sanction tour advance to a Government servant to cover personal traveling expenses for a period not exceeding:
(a) 10 days (b) 30 days
(c) 45 days (d) 60 days
101. What is the maximum amount of LTC advance admissible to a Government servant?
(a) 50% of the estimated cost of journeys both ways
(b) 75% of the estimated cost of journeys both ways
(c) 90% of the estimated cost of journeys both ways
(d) 80% of the estimated cost of journeys both ways
102. When will the LTC claim of a Government servant fall due for payment?
(a)On the date succeeding the date of completion of the return journey
(b)On the date of commencement of the outward journey
(c)On the starting date of the return journey
(d)On the date of joining after duty availing of LTC
103. How many tour advances shall be allowed to remain outstanding at a time?
(a) One (b)Two
(c) Three (d) No limits prescribed
104. What is the maximum amount of immediate relief granted to the family of the deceased Government servant?
(a) ₹8,000 (b) ₹10,000
(c) ₹25,000 (d) ₹50,000
105. What is the time-limit for adjustment of an advance granted as immediate relief to the family of the deceased Government servant, under Rule 79 of the compendium of Rules on Advances?
(a) Within a period of one month from the date of sanction
(b) Within a period of three months from the date of sanction
(c) Within a period of six months from the date of sanction
(d) Within a period of nine months from the date of sanction
106. What is the maximum quantum of Travelling Allowance to be granted
to the family of the deceased Government servant?
(a) 1/4th of the probable amount of TA admissible
(b) 1/2 of the probable amount of TA admissible
(c) 3/4th of the probable amount of TA admissible
(d) 2/3 rd of the probable amount of TA admissible
107. What is the period prescribed to render accounts of the advance of TA by the family of the deceased, if the family travels in more than one batch?
(a)Within one month after completion of the journey by the last batch
(b)Within one month after completion of the journey by the first batch
(c)Within one month from the date of sanction of advance
(d)Within one month from the date of commencement of journey by the last batch
108. What is the time-limit stipulated to the family of the deceased employee to complete the journey?
(a) Within six months after the date of death
(b) Within one year after the date of death
(c) Within three months after the date of death
(d) Within nine months after the date of death
109. What is the time-limit to render accounts of TA advance granted to the family of the deceased, if the family travels in one batch?
(a) Within one month of the completion of the journey
(b) Within two months of the completion of the journey
(c) Within three months of the completion of the journey
(d) Within six months of the completion of the journey
110. When will the claims of a Government servant to TA/DA on tour /transfer/training/journey on retirement stand forfeited?
(a) If the claim is not preferred within 60 days succeeding the date of completion of the journey
(b) If the claim is not preferred within 30 days succeeding the date of completion of the journey
(c) If the claim is not preferred within 90 days succeeding the date of completion of the journey
(d) If the claim is not preferred within 45 days succeeding the date of completion of the journey
111. From the following sentences, find the eligibility and conditions for the grant of TA to non-official members/committees?
(a) Can be sanctioned after receipt of a written undertaking
(b) Cannot be sanctioned the second advance until the first one is adjusted
(c) In exceptional cases, where it is difficult to meet the cost of long and expensive journeys
(d) All the above
——-***——-
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Index:
The General Financial Rules 2017;
And General Finance Rules 2019;
the General Finance Rules 2005;
MCQ on General Financial Rules 2017;
General Financial Rules purchase procedure;
And General Financial Rules 2017 MCQ
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I like the MCQ on GFR almost all the subject covered . But I want quiz also to test the accuracy. Thanks for the admin for the Great effort. M. N. Reddy
Thank you.